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The squeeze theorem AB & BC

Some functions have no limit yet still sit inside two functions that do. If the outer two close on the same value, the middle one has nowhere else to go. That is the whole theorem, and both of its conditions have to be checked, not assumed.

§1

The statement, and both hypotheses.

Suppose that near $x = a$ (excluding $a$ itself)

$$g(x) \le f(x) \le h(x),$$

and that

$$\lim_{x\to a} g(x) = \lim_{x\to a} h(x) = L.$$

Then $\lim_{x\to a} f(x) = L$.

There are two conditions and both do real work:

  1. The inequality must hold near $a$. Not at one point, and not on a region that excludes one side of $a$ when the limit is two-sided.
  2. The two outer limits must exist and be equal. Bounds that close on different values squeeze nothing.

Skipping either check is the characteristic error. Bounds of $-1$ and $1$ around a wildly oscillating function are perfectly true and completely useless, because those bounds do not meet.

§2

The standard example, built properly.

Find $\lim_{x\to 0} x^2\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)$. The sine factor oscillates without limit as $x \to 0$, so the product law is unavailable. Build bounds instead.

Start from the one fact that is always true:

$$-1 \le \sin\left(\tfrac{1}{x}\right) \le 1.$$

Multiply through by $x^2$. Because $x^2 \ge 0$, the inequalities keep their direction:

$$-x^2 \le x^2\sin\left(\tfrac{1}{x}\right) \le x^2.$$

Both outer functions tend to 0 as $x\to 0$, so the middle one does too. The answer is 0.

The step everyone skips is the multiplication. Quoting $-1 \le \sin \le 1$ and concluding the limit is 0 leaves the bounds at $-1$ and $1$, which do not meet and prove nothing.

§3

Multiplying an inequality by something that changes sign.

Multiplying an inequality by a negative quantity reverses it, so bounds built by multiplying through are only valid where the multiplier's sign is known.

With $x^2$ there is no issue: it is non-negative everywhere, so a two-sided argument works directly. With a bare $x$ there is: for $x > 0$ multiplying $-1 \le \sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) \le 1$ by $x$ gives $-x \le x\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) \le x$, but for $x < 0$ the inequality flips.

The clean fix is to bound the absolute value instead:

$$\left|x\sin\left(\tfrac{1}{x}\right)\right| \le |x|, \quad\text{so}\quad -|x| \le x\sin\left(\tfrac{1}{x}\right) \le |x|,$$

and both $\pm|x|$ tend to 0 from either side. Using a one-sided bound for a two-sided limit is a real error, not a technicality.

§4

When to reach for it.

Two signals point here. A bounded factor with no limit multiplied by something tending to 0: sines, cosines, and anything oscillating. And a function defined by an inequality rather than a formula, which appears on exams as "suppose $3x - 1 \le f(x) \le x^2 + 1$ near 2".

In the second case, do exactly what the theorem says: take the limit of each bound. Here both give 3 at $x = 2$, so $\lim_{x\to 2} f(x) = 3$, even though $f$ is never actually specified. If instead the bounds gave 3 and 5, the theorem would be silent: the limit could be anything in between, or fail to exist.

§5

Skill Check.

Ten scenarios. Pick the chips that match your answer, then check. A scenario marks complete the first time every part is right. Progress saves on this device.

0 of 10 scenarios complete