Mistake Master
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Every term is built on the centre BC only

A Taylor polynomial matches a function's value and its first $n$ derivatives at a single point. That point is the centre, and it appears in every term twice: once in the derivative being evaluated there, and once in the $(x-a)$ being raised to a power. Change it and you have a different polynomial approximating the same function somewhere else.

§1

The formula, and what each piece is for.

The $n$th-degree Taylor polynomial for $f$ centred at $a$ is

$$P_n(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}(x-a)^{k}.$$

Three ingredients, each doing a specific job:

  1. $f^{(k)}(a)$: the $k$th derivative, evaluated at the centre. A number, not a function.
  2. $k!$: the correction that makes the matching work. Differentiating $(x-a)^{k}$ down to a constant produces $k!$, so dividing by it is what leaves $f^{(k)}(a)$ behind.
  3. $(x-a)^{k}$: the distance from the centre, raised to the matching power.

The factorial is worth seeing rather than memorising. Differentiate $P_n$ $k$ times and set $x = a$: every term of lower degree has vanished, every term of higher degree still has a factor of $(x-a)$ and dies, and the $k$th term contributes $\frac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!} \cdot k! = f^{(k)}(a)$. The factorial exists precisely to cancel the one differentiation produces, so omitting it makes the $k$th derivative of your polynomial $k!$ times too large.

§2

Two ways the coefficient goes wrong.

The code covers two failures that look alike on the page and are not the same mistake.

The factorial is missing. Writing $f^{(3)}(a)(x-a)^{3}$ instead of $\frac{f^{(3)}(a)}{3!}(x-a)^{3}$. This is the more common of the two and it grows worse with degree: by $k = 5$ the term is $120$ times too big.

The order and the power disagree. Writing $\frac{f''(a)}{3!}(x-a)^{3}$, where a second derivative has been paired with a cubic term. The rule is that the derivative order, the factorial and the exponent are all the same number, in every term, with no exceptions. When they are written in a column it is easy to check.

A worked case. For $f(x) = e^{x}$ at $a = 0$ every derivative is $e^{x}$, so $f^{(k)}(0) = 1$ for all $k$ and

$$P_3(x) = 1 + x + \frac{x^{2}}{2} + \frac{x^{3}}{6}.$$

The coefficients are $1, 1, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{6}$, which are $\frac{1}{k!}$. Getting $1 + x + x^{2} + x^{3}$ instead is the factorial omission in its purest form, and the resulting polynomial does not even have the right second derivative at $0$.

§3

The centre is part of the object.

A Taylor polynomial is only claimed to be good near its centre. Ask for one centred at $a = 1$ and produce one centred at $0$, and you have not made a small error: you have approximated the same function in a different neighbourhood.

Two specific slips the code records:

  1. Evaluating derivatives at the wrong point. Using $f^{(k)}(0)$ while writing $(x-1)^{k}$. The two halves of each term now refer to different centres.
  2. Writing $x^{k}$ instead of $(x-a)^{k}$. Correct only when $a = 0$, which is why so much practice with Maclaurin series makes this one easy to slip into.

A Maclaurin polynomial is just the case $a = 0$, and it deserves no separate machinery. The reason it is singled out is that $(x-0)^{k} = x^{k}$ makes the algebra tidy, and that tidiness is exactly what disguises the general form.

One consequence worth stating: two Taylor polynomials of the same function at different centres are genuinely different polynomials, with different coefficients, that agree with $f$ at different places. Neither is more correct.

§4

What the picture shows.

The figure draws $\cos x$ with $P_2(x) = 1 - \frac{x^{2}}{2}$ and $P_4(x) = 1 - \frac{x^{2}}{2} + \frac{x^{4}}{24}$ on one set of axes. Three things are visible in it, and each is a fact worth having:

  1. All three meet at the centre. That is the defining property, and it is why the approximation is local.
  2. Higher degree buys a wider match, not a better one everywhere. $P_4$ tracks the curve noticeably further out than $P_2$, and both eventually leave it.
  3. They leave in a definite direction. $P_2$ falls away below, $P_4$ stays nearer, and at $x = 2.5$ the values are $\cos 2.5 \approx -0.8011$, $P_4 \approx -0.4974$ and $P_2 = -2.1250$.

Two notes on efficiency. For $\cos x$ the odd derivatives vanish at $0$, so $P_2$ and $P_3$ are the same polynomial: the degree-$3$ term has coefficient zero. And the amount by which these polynomials miss is not a matter of eyeballing the picture, it is the subject of 10.12.

§5

Skill Check.

Ten scenarios. Pick the chips that match your answer, then check. A scenario marks complete the first time every part is right. Progress saves on this device.

0 of 10 scenarios complete